PIB Analysis · Daily Current Affairs PIB Analysis 09 June 2026  ·  Legacy IAS Academy Contents01 Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan — A Decade of Inclusive Maternal Healthcare Ministry of Health and Family Welfare  ·  Maternal Health GS 2Health 02 Empowering the Poor — A Decade of Inclusive Transformation Multiple Ministries  ·  Welfare, Social Sector, Rural Development GS 2GS 3Essay Article 01 Article 01 Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan — A Decade of Inclusive Maternal Healthcare Source: PIB, 08 June 2026  ·  Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) Exam Relevance: GS Paper 2 — Government Policies and Interventions; Health; Women and Child Welfare. Relevant for SDG 3 discussions, institutional delivery ecosystem, and maternal health infrastructure. GS 2Health Key Statistics 130 → 87MMR per lakh live births (2014–16 to 2022–24) 7 crore+Free ANC check-ups conducted since 2016 78.27 lakh+High-Risk Pregnancies identified (as of Dec 2024) Jan 2022Extended PMSMA launched for HRP follow-up <70SDG 3.1 target — MMR per 1,00,000 by 2030 25High-risk factors screened per PMSMA visit 1. Issue in Brief PMSMA (Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan) — India’s flagship free antenatal care programme — completed 10 years on June 9, 2026, launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). Guarantees free, comprehensive Antenatal Care (ANC) — medical monitoring of a pregnant woman before childbirth — to all pregnant women on the 9th of every month at designated government health facilities. Focuses on the second and third trimesters (months 4–9 of pregnancy), when risk of complications is highest and specialist intervention has the greatest impact. India’s Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) — number of maternal deaths per 1,00,000 live births — declined from 130 (2014–16) to 87 (2022–24), a reduction of 43 points over a decade. Celebrations mark the decade with release of a ₹75 commemorative coin and ₹5 postal stamp by Union Health Minister Jagat Prakash Nadda. 2. Static Background Maternal Mortality (WHO definition): death of a woman during pregnancy or within 42 days of childbirth, from causes related to or aggravated by the pregnancy — excludes accidental or incidental causes. SDG Target 3.1: Reduce global MMR to less than 70 per 1,00,000 live births by 2030; India at 87 must accelerate — marginal gains are now harder than early reductions. National Health Policy, 2017 set a national MMR target of <100 by 2020 (achieved) and <70 by 2030. MMR data is published by the Sample Registration System (SRS) under the Registrar General of India (RGI), Ministry of Home Affairs. India has ~2.9 crore pregnancies annually — making scale and geographic reach of delivery a unique challenge, especially in remote and tribal regions. High-Risk Pregnancy (HRP): A pregnancy with complications or pre-existing conditions — such as severe anaemia, gestational hypertension, or diabetes — that significantly elevate risk for mother or child; PMSMA screens for 25 specific risk factors. PMSMA operates under the RMNCAH+N (Reproductive, Maternal, Newborn, Child and Adolescent Health + Nutrition) strategy of the NHM (National Health Mission) — the umbrella framework for public health service delivery in India. 3. Key Dimensions Service package: clinical examination, blood and urine tests, ultrasonography (USG), Iron and Folic Acid (IFA) tablets, calcium supplements, birth-planning counselling, and complication-readiness guidance — all free of cost. Check-ups conducted by OB-GYN (Obstetrician and Gynaecologist) specialists or doctors trained in: CEmONC — Comprehensive Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care (a fully-equipped facility capable of caesarean sections, blood transfusions, and surgical interventions) or BEmONC — Basic Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care (non-surgical emergency services: administering oxytocin, antibiotics, managing eclampsia, assisted vaginal delivery — without surgical capacity). Mother and Child Protection (MCP) Card: A colour-coded sticker system affixed at each visit indicating each woman’s risk level and follow-up schedule — allows frontline workers to quickly prioritise care. Doctor Volunteer System: Private OB-GYN specialists, radiologists, and physicians invited to volunteer on the 9th of every month — just 12 days a year per PM Modi’s appeal in Mann Ki Baat. Registration via pmsma.mohfw.gov.in or toll-free 1800-180-1104; recognised through the ‘IPledgeFor9’ Achievers Awards. Extended PMSMA (January 2022): Ensures risk identification leads to continuous follow-up — name-based line-listing of HRP women, up to 4 additional sessions/month, individual tracking until safe delivery and 45 days after. Financial incentives for both beneficiary and ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) — community health workers who serve as the last-mile link between households and health facilities. 10-Year Celebration: Special PMSMA sessions at all District Hospitals, Sub-District Hospitals, and FRUs (First Referral Units) — district-level hospitals equipped for emergency obstetric referrals; Ayushman Arogya Shivirs at 1.8 lakh Ayushman Aarogya Mandirs; community outreach via VHSND, JAS, and SHGs. Ecosystem of complementary schemes: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) — cash incentive for institutional delivery, 11.96 crore women benefited; Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK) — free direct services (no cash) for pregnant women and newborns, 18.05 crore beneficiaries; SUMAN (Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan) — quality ANC guarantee at 99,290+ facilities; LaQshya — Labour Room Quality Improvement Initiative; PMMVY — ₹5,000 direct maternity benefit for first child. 4. Critical Analysis Supply-side success, demand-side gap: PMSMA has effectively expanded specialist antenatal care supply; reaching unregistered, missed, and dropout pregnant women — the most marginalised — remains the central unfinished task, particularly in tribal and remote areas. Volunteer participation is geographically uneven: Private OB-GYN participation is concentrated in urban and semi-urban areas; rural and tribal regions face structural specialist shortages that volunteerism alone cannot bridge. SDG 3.1 gap remains large: At MMR 87, India needs a further 17+ point reduction in 3–4 years; marginal gains are harder as easy-to-reach populations have already been served — remaining deaths are concentrated among the poorest and most remote. ASHA worker overload: ASHA workers simultaneously manage PMSMA mobilisation, JSY facilitation, immunisation tracking, POSHAN monitoring, and Extended PMSMA HRP follow-up — overloading this last-mile workforce risks fatigue and declining engagement quality. Ultrasound availability gap: While PMSMA mandates at least one ultrasound, many PHCs and CHCs lack functional equipment or radiologists — meaning the “comprehensive” package is often incomplete in practice in rural facilities. Positive externality — health data: PMSMA’s name-based HRP tracking creates a valuable maternal health surveillance database directly informing district-level planning and resource allocation under NHM. 5. Way Forward Expand CEmONC/BEmONC facilities: More emergency obstetric units at sub-district level are needed — early risk detection is meaningless without adequate surgical and non-surgical response capacity nearby. Integrate with ABHA: Link PMSMA records to the 14-digit Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) for continuity of care across facilities and states, enabling better population-level maternal health tracking. Task-shifting for ultrasound: Train ANMs (Auxiliary Nurse Midwives) in limited obstetric ultrasound protocols to expand scan access in sub-centres that lack radiologists. Sub-national targeting: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan contribute disproportionately to India’s maternal deaths — concentrated state-level interventions are more efficient than uniform national strategies. Male engagement in ANC: Behaviour-change communication to involve men in accompanying women to ANC visits reduces delays in emergency care-seeking — a key factor in preventable maternal deaths. Extend monitoring to postpartum period: Most maternal deaths occur within 24–48 hours after delivery, not during pregnancy — a structured postpartum protocol modelled on Extended PMSMA would address this critical gap. 6. Prelims Pointers PMSMA LaunchJune 9, 2016 — nodal Ministry: MoHFW (Ministry of Health and Family Welfare) ANC Day9th of every month at designated government facilities — 2nd and 3rd trimester only MMR DefinitionMaternal deaths per 1,00,000 live births — data by SRS under Registrar General of India (RGI), MHA MMR Trend130 (2014–16) → 87 (2022–24) — a 43-point reduction over a decade SDG Target 3.1MMR below 70 per 1,00,000 live births by 2030 HRP Screening25 specific risk factors screened at each PMSMA session Extended PMSMAJan 2022 — individual HRP tracking until 45 days post-delivery; SMS alerts to beneficiary + ASHA ASHAAccredited Social Health Activist — community health worker under NHM; last-mile link between household and health system CEmONCComprehensive Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care — includes C-section surgical capacity, blood transfusion BEmONCBasic Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care — non-surgical: oxytocin, antibiotics, assisted vaginal delivery FRU (First Referral Unit)District-level hospital for emergency obstetric referrals — HRPs linked to nearest FRU ‘IPledgeFor9’ AwardsRecognises private doctors who volunteer for PMSMA — given by MoHFW SUMANSurakshit Matritva Aashwasan — quality ANC guarantee across 99,290+ facilities nationwide JSY vs JSSKJSY = cash incentive for institutional delivery; JSSK = free direct services (no cash) for pregnant women and newborns LaQshyaLabour Room Quality Improvement Initiative — improves care standards specifically in labour rooms RMNCAH+NReproductive, Maternal, Newborn, Child and Adolescent Health + Nutrition — NHM’s core health strategy 7. Practice Mains Question Critically examine the role of Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) in reducing India’s Maternal Mortality Ratio. What structural and systemic challenges remain in achieving SDG Target 3.1 by 2030? GS Paper 2  ·  Health, Government Policies and Interventions  ·  15 marks 8. Practice MCQ Which of the following best describes the difference between CEmONC and BEmONC facilities under India’s maternal health framework? (a) CEmONC focuses on nutrition and antenatal counselling, while BEmONC handles emergency surgical deliveries.(b) CEmONC provides surgical capacity including caesarean sections, while BEmONC provides non-surgical emergency obstetric care.(c) BEmONC is available only at district hospitals, while CEmONC operates at sub-centres.(d) Both CEmONC and BEmONC are equivalent levels of care distinguished only by geographic location. Article 02 Article 02 Empowering the Poor — A Decade of Inclusive Transformation Source: PIB, 08 June 2026  ·  Multiple Ministries Exam Relevance: GS Paper 2 — Government Policies, Social Justice, Poverty; GS Paper 3 — Indian Economy, Inclusive Growth. High-frequency topic for both Prelims (scheme details) and Mains (critical analysis of welfare delivery). Landmark VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 is a must-know for UPSC 2026. GS 2GS 3Essay Key Statistics ~25 crorePeople lifted from multidimensional poverty (2013–14 to 2022–23) 29.17% → 11.28%Multidimensional poverty rate decline (NITI Aayog National MPI) 3.23 cr → 15.84 crRural households with tap water (Aug 2019 to May 2026) 12.11 crore+Household toilets built under Swachh Bharat Mission–Grameen 81 crore+PMGKAY free foodgrain beneficiaries 4.6% → 0.3%Female primary school dropout rate (2013–14 to 2024–25) 1. Issue in Brief A PIB release consolidates a decade of India’s inclusive welfare delivery (2014–2026) across water, sanitation, energy, health, food security, housing, education, livelihoods, and digital governance. Central claim: ~25 crore people lifted out of multidimensional poverty between 2013–14 and 2022–23, measured by NITI Aayog’s National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) using NFHS-6 (2022–23) data. Framing reflects the Antyodaya to Sarvodaya philosophy — from welfare for the most deprived (Antyodaya, a concept from Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya) to universal well-being (Sarvodaya). Landmark legislative development: The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005 has been formally repealed and replaced by the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) [VB–G RAM G] Act, 2025, effective July 1, 2026. 2. Static Background Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): Measures simultaneous deprivation across 12 indicators spanning 3 dimensions — Health, Education, Standard of Living. Uses the Alkire-Foster methodology — a dual-cutoff approach that first identifies which dimensions a person is deprived in, then checks if total deprivation crosses a threshold to classify them as “multidimensionally poor.” National MPI: Published by NITI Aayog using NFHS (National Family Health Survey) data, conducted by IIPS (International Institute for Population Sciences) under MoHFW. Global MPI: Published annually by UNDP + OPHI — for cross-country comparison; not directly comparable to India’s National MPI. JAM Trinity: Three-pillar digital architecture enabling Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) with minimal leakage — Jan Dhan (bank account) + Aadhaar (biometric identity) + Mobile (connectivity). National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013: Legal entitlement for subsidised foodgrains — gives 75% of rural and 50% of urban population the right to subsidised grains; the statutory backbone of PDS and PMGKAY. VB–G RAM G Act, 2025: Passed by Parliament December 2025; Presidential assent December 20, 2025; effective July 1, 2026. Formally repeals MGNREGA, 2005. Raises guarantee from 100 to 125 days/year; integrates planning with PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan; raises administrative ceiling from 6% to 9%. 3. Key Dimensions Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) (2019, Jal Shakti Ministry — Har Ghar Jal): Coverage expanded from 3.23 crore to 15.84 crore rural households (Aug 2019 to May 2026) = 81.87% of 19.35 crore households. Budget grew ~488% to ₹67,670 crore; 2.77 lakh villages certified 100% under Har Ghar Jal. Schools with tap water: 29,711 → 9.23 lakh; Anganwadi Centres: 15,464 → 9.66 lakh. Swachh Bharat Mission–Grameen (SBM-G) (Oct 2014): Rural sanitation coverage: 39% (2014) → 100% (2019); India declared ODF in 2019. 12.11 crore household toilets built. 5 lakh+ villages now ODF Plus (solid + liquid waste management). GOBARdhan (cattle dung → biogas): plants grew from 14 (2018–19) to 1,213+ (May 2026). Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban (SBM-U): Budget ₹62,009 cr → ₹1.41 lakh crore (+128%). Door-to-door waste collection: 43% → 98%; waste processing: 16% → 82%. Status hierarchy — ODF (no open defecation) → ODF+ (ODF + visible cleanliness + waste management) → ODF++ (ODF+ + all toilets functional + faecal sludge safely treated). 4,692 cities ODF; 4,314 ODF+; 1,973 ODF++. PM Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) (2016): 10.57 crore free LPG connections to BPL women — reduces indoor air pollution from biomass burning. Total LPG connections: 14.52 crore (2014) → 33.39 crore (2026), a 130% rise. PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (2024): Rooftop solar; up to 300 units free electricity/month; budget ₹6,250 cr → ₹22,000 cr; 36.8 lakh households benefited (Apr 2026). SAUBHAGYA (2017): 100% household electrification by March 2019. Rural daily supply: 12.5 hrs (2014) → 22.6 hrs (2025). DDUGJY (Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana) (2014): 100% village-level electrification by 2025 (distinct from household electrification under SAUBHAGYA). Ayushman Bharat–PMJAY (Sept 2018): World’s largest publicly funded health scheme; ₹5 lakh/year insurance per family; 43.93 crore Ayushman Cards; hospitalisations: 29.96 lakh → 12.03 crore; treatment cost ₹1.80 lakh crore. ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account): 14-digit unique health ID; 88.33 crore accounts; 97.81 crore linked health records. AIIMS operational: 8 (1947–2014) → 15 (2014–2026). PMGKAY (2020): Free foodgrains to 81 crore+ beneficiaries; extended 5 years in Jan 2024. SARTHAK-PDS (approved May 2026, ₹25,530 crore): technology-driven PDS modernisation under NFSA. ONORC (One Nation One Ration Card): ration card portability across all states — 2.07 billion+ transactions. 99.8% of 5.51 lakh Fair Price Shops Aadhaar-enabled; 100% ration cards digitised. Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (2018–19): Subsumed SSA, RMSA, Teacher Education. 4,073 schools upgraded; 1.49 lakh ICT/smart classrooms. Female primary dropout rate: 4.6% → 0.3%. EWS Reservation: Constitution 103rd Amendment Act, 2019 — 10% for EWS (income <₹8 lakh/year), outside SC/ST/OBC quotas. Child Sex Ratio: 943 → 1,020 (under Beti Bachao Beti Padhao). KGBV residential schools for girls: 3,609 → 5,639 sanctioned; enrolment 3.52 lakh → 7.11 lakh. PMAY–Urban: 98.10 lakh houses completed; 96% registered in women’s name (PMAY-U 2.0). PMAY–Grameen: 3.03 crore houses completed; 75% beneficiaries women. AMRUT/AMRUT 2.0 (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation): ₹2.79 lakh crore in urban revitalization; 2.53 crore tap water connections; 7,943 projects completed. DAY-NRLM (Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana–National Rural Livelihoods Mission): SHG women: 2.37 crore → 10 crore; SHGs: 21.31 lakh → 91.75 lakh; loans: ₹22,944 cr → ₹1.2 lakh crore. Lakhpati Didi (2023): 3.07 crore women with ₹1 lakh+ annual income. Namo Drone Didi (2023): 500 drones for SHG women in agri-services. SHE-Mart (Budget 2026–27): Community-owned retail outlets for SHG products; target 1 crore women. VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 (formally repeals MGNREGA, 2005): Passed Dec 2025; Presidential assent Dec 20, 2025; effective July 1, 2026. Employment guarantee: 100 → 125 days/year; administrative ceiling: 6% → 9%; planning integrated with PM Gati Shakti; focus shifts to integrated livelihood security + durable asset creation + climate resilience. Under predecessor (2014–25): person-days 1,660 cr → 3,036.7 cr; women’s participation 48% → 58.19%. PMJDY (2014): 58.16 crore accounts (May 2026); balance ₹3.02 lakh crore; 13.55 lakh Bank Mitras for branchless banking. PM MUDRA Yojana: Credit up to ₹10 lakh (no collateral); tiers: Shishu (up to ₹50,000), Kishore (₹50,001–₹5 lakh), Tarun (₹5 lakh–₹10 lakh); 57 crore accounts; 66% disbursed to women (₹16.88 lakh crore); 49% to SC/ST/OBC. UPI (Unified Payments Interface): Under 100 crore annual → 2,100 crore+ monthly transactions; institutions: 21 → 705; value: ₹0.38 cr → ₹29.52 lakh crore. 86% of P2M (Person-to-Merchant) transactions below ₹500 — deep daily retail penetration. eShram Portal (2021): 31.64 crore unorganised workers registered with UANs. Tribal Development: PM-JANMAN (2023) — 75 PVTGs (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups): 2.66 lakh houses, 1,949 km roads, 750 Mobile Medical Units completed. Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (2024): 12.89 lakh houses sanctioned. EMRS (Eklavya Model Residential Schools): 129 → 499 operational; 1.54 lakh enrolled. 4. Critical Analysis Coverage vs. quality: Many schemes show near-100% saturation — ODF certification, SAUBHAGYA electrification, PMJDY account opening — but quality lags; dysfunctional toilets post-construction, irregular tap water, dormant Jan Dhan accounts, and poor power quality remain documented. Coverage does not equal sustained utilisation. Inflation caveat: The decline in average inflation (8.1% in 2004–14 to 5.1% in 2014–25) is partly attributable to global commodity cycles — real purchasing power gains for the poor need to be assessed independently of aggregate macro trends. SHG credit quality: While DAY-NRLM loan disbursements grew nearly 5x, NPA levels in SHG lending and actual per-household income uplift need scrutiny — scale of credit disbursement alone does not equal economic empowerment. VB–G RAM G transition risks: The formal repeal of MGNREGA carries transition risks for workers. The shift from demand-driven funding to plan-based allocation raises concerns about whether genuine employment demand in distress periods will be met flexibly. Urban poverty gap: Most flagship schemes are rural-centric. DAY-NULM concluded September 2024 without a clear successor — urban informal workers, slum dwellers, and migrants remain the most underserved segment of India’s welfare architecture. ONORC portability limits: Despite 2.07 billion transactions, ONORC benefits only registered NFSA beneficiaries — unregistered migrants who never enrolled in any state remain entirely outside the food security net. 5. Way Forward Outcome-based metrics: Shift policy focus from asset creation (toilets, homes, connections) to sustained utilisation and quality — introduce independent third-party outcome audits for SBM, JJM, and PMAY. Plug the JJM gap: With ~18% of rural households still uncovered and supply irregular in many certified villages, dedicated O&M (Operations and Maintenance) funding and strengthened Village Water and Sanitation Committees (VWSCs) are essential. Integrate ONORC with eShram: Linking eShram’s UAN database with NFSA entitlements would extend food security portability to unregistered informal workers — the most food-insecure segment currently outside the system. Smooth VB–G RAM G rollout: States must notify their schemes under the new Act before July 1, 2026; field staff must be retrained; the 125-day guarantee must remain demand-responsive, not purely plan-driven, to protect distress employment needs. Urban welfare architecture: Design a successor to DAY-NULM aligned with rapid urbanisation — urban informal workers need structured skill development, social security, and credit access. Climate-proof welfare: Climate shocks disproportionately hurt the rural poor — integrate climate resilience into housing norms (PMAY), water infrastructure (JJM), and the asset-creation focus of VB–G RAM G (the Act already includes extreme weather event mitigation as a thematic domain). 6. Prelims Pointers National MPIPublished by NITI Aayog; 12 indicators — Health, Education, Standard of Living; uses NFHS data (by IIPS under MoHFW) Global MPIPublished by UNDP + OPHI annually — cross-country comparison; not directly comparable to India’s National MPI Alkire-Foster MethodDual-cutoff: identifies deprived dimensions first, then checks if total deprivation qualifies as “multidimensionally poor” JAM TrinityJan Dhan + Aadhaar + Mobile — enables DBT with minimal leakage; core architecture of welfare delivery ODF / ODF+ / ODF++ODF = no open defecation; ODF+ = ODF + visible cleanliness + waste management; ODF++ = ODF+ + all toilets functional + faecal sludge safely treated Har Ghar Jal CertificationVillage certified only after 100% saturation of households, schools, Anganwadis, and health centres with tap water ABHAAyushman Bharat Health Account — 14-digit unique health ID (distinct from Aadhaar’s 12-digit) PMJDY AccountsZero-balance accounts; include RuPay debit card + ₹2 lakh accidental insurance coverage MUDRA Loan TiersShishu: up to ₹50,000 | Kishore: ₹50,001–₹5 lakh | Tarun: ₹5 lakh–₹10 lakh — no collateral required VB–G RAM G Act, 2025Presidential assent Dec 20, 2025; effective July 1, 2026; formally repeals MGNREGA, 2005; guarantee raised 100 → 125 days/year VB–G RAM G PlanningIntegrated with PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan; thematic domains: water security, rural infra, livelihood infra, extreme weather mitigation PVTGParticularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups — 75 groups targeted under PM-JANMAN (2023) EWS ReservationConstitution 103rd Amendment Act, 2019 — 10% in education and employment; income limit ₹8 lakh/year; outside SC/ST/OBC quotas KGBVKasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya — residential schools for girls from SC/ST/OBC/Minority communities GOBARdhanGalvanising Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan — cattle dung/organic waste → biogas + organic manure SWAYAMIndia’s own MOOC (Massive Open Online Course) platform — free higher education; 5.80 crore enrolments SARTHAK-PDSApproved May 2026 (₹25,530 crore) — technology-driven modernisation of PDS logistics under NFSA ONORC ScopeOne Nation One Ration Card — portability for registered NFSA beneficiaries only; 2.07 billion+ transactions eShram UANUniversal Account Number — issued to unorganised workers; linked to Aadhaar; self-declaration basis; 31.64 crore registered UPI P2M Share86% of Person-to-Merchant transactions below ₹500 — deep daily retail penetration, not just large transfers 7. Practice Mains Question “India’s decade-long welfare expansion has achieved significant coverage milestones but faces the harder challenge of converting access into sustained outcomes.” Critically examine with reference to key social sector programmes. GS Paper 2  ·  Government Policies, Social Sector  ·  15 marks 8. Practice MCQ Which of the following correctly describes the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) [VB–G RAM G] Act, 2025? (a) It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched under the existing MGNREGA framework with enhanced wage rates.(b) It is a new legislation that supplements MGNREGA by adding a separate urban employment guarantee.(c) It is a comprehensive legislation that formally repeals MGNREGA, 2005, and raises the employment guarantee to 125 days per rural household per year.(d) It transfers rural employment programmes entirely to State Governments, removing Central Government funding obligations.

UPSC Editorial Digest · 09 June 2026 The Hindu Editorials — 09 June 2026 09 June 2026 · The Hindu Contents01 The Oman CEPA — A New Gateway for India’s Exports Anant Goenka, President, FICCI  ·  Indian Express  ·  Trade Policy, Economic Diplomacy, Gulf Relations GS 2 — International RelationsGS 3 — Economy & TradeEssay 02 Fifteen FTAs, 27 Countries, Four Challenges Ajay Srivastava  ·  Indian Express  ·  FTA Policy, Trade Deficits, Industrial Competitiveness GS 3 — Economy & TradeGS 2 — Governance & PolicyEssay Editorial 01 of 02 Article 01 The Oman CEPA — A New Gateway for India’s Exports Anant Goenka — President, FICCI  ·  Indian Express Relevance: India’s expanding FTA network, Gulf trade strategy, export competitiveness across textiles, pharmaceuticals and engineering goods — squarely in GS 2 (International Relations, Bilateral Agreements) and GS 3 (Economy, Trade Policy, Infrastructure). High Essay and Interview value around “India as a global manufacturing powerhouse.” GS 2 — International RelationsGS 3 — Economy & TradeGS 2 — Bilateral & Gulf PolicyEssay — India & Globalisation Oman’s strategic geography: ports at Sohar, Duqm, and Salalah sit at the crossroads of the Gulf, Indian Ocean, and East African trade routes. 1 — Issue in Brief The India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) came into force on June 1, 2026, building on thousands of years of commercial and maritime ties between the two nations and providing a modern legal framework for deepening trade, investment, and economic cooperation. Bilateral trade has grown from $8.94 billion (FY2023-24) to $11.18 billion (FY2025-26), reflecting growing complementarities; the CEPA is designed to accelerate this trajectory by eliminating tariff barriers across a broad swath of Indian export sectors. The agreement arrives as India actively diversifies its trade partnerships — following CEPAs with UAE, Australia, EFTA, UK, New Zealand, and the EU — and seeks deeper integration with global value chains centred on the Gulf, a region critical to India’s energy security and strategic interests. The editorial’s central claim: the CEPA’s real test lies not in the text of the agreement but in implementation and utilisation — whether Indian businesses across sectors and states actively leverage the preferences created, or whether the agreement remains underused as has happened with earlier FTAs. 2 — Static Background A Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a broader instrument than a traditional Free Trade Agreement — it covers goods (tariffs, NTBs), services (mode-wise commitments), investment (protection, facilitation), intellectual property, and regulatory cooperation, making it the most advanced form of bilateral economic treaty India concludes. India’s first CEPA was with Singapore (2005); the Gulf region CEPA template was developed with the UAE (2022) — the fastest negotiated CEPA in Indian history, completed in 88 days — and the Oman agreement follows the same comprehensive structure. The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) principle under WTO rules requires countries to apply the same tariff to all trading partners unless an FTA/CEPA is in place. Before the Oman CEPA, only 15.33% of India’s exports to Oman entered at zero duty under MFN; the agreement expands this to 99.38% by value. Oman’s strategic geography: located at the crossroads of the Gulf, Indian Ocean, and East Africa, with major logistics hubs at Sohar, Duqm, and Salalah ports. It provides India not just a destination market but a gateway to the wider GCC and East African economies. The Export Inspection Council (EIC), under the Ministry of Commerce, certifies the quality of Indian export goods. Oman’s agreement to accept EIC certificates eliminates duplicative testing — a significant non-tariff barrier reduction for Indian exporters in food and processed goods. India’s NPOP (National Programme for Organic Production) and halal certification systems being recognised by Oman opens food, organic produce, and processed food export corridors — particularly relevant for agro-processing clusters in coastal and peninsular states. 3 — Key Dimensions Tariff access transformation: Oman offers duty-free access on 98.08% of tariff lines covering 99.38% of India’s exports by value. Previously only 15.33% entered at zero duty under MFN. This near-universal tariff elimination is the headline gain and provides an immediate competitiveness boost across sectors. Textiles & apparel: India holds 43% of Oman’s woven apparel imports and 31% of knitted apparel. The existing 5% tariff removal strengthens Indian competitiveness against China, the other dominant supplier. Gains primarily flow to textile clusters in Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. Chemicals: India already supplies ~39% of Oman’s inorganic chemical imports. Tariff-free access amplifies an existing dominant position — one of the sectors where the CEPA deepens rather than creates a relationship. Engineering goods — the biggest opportunity gap: Oman imports $3.7 billion in mechanical machinery and $3.3 billion in automotives annually, yet India holds only 5% and 2% market share respectively. Preferential access here offers the largest headroom for export expansion, targeting infrastructure, construction, and industrial sectors in Oman’s Vision 2040 development programme. Pharmaceuticals — regulatory facilitation model: With ~10% market share, India’s pharmaceutical gain is not tariff-driven but regulatory: products approved by leading international regulators get fast-tracked approvals, reducing compliance costs and accelerating market entry — a template that can be scaled across India’s other CEPA negotiations. Agricultural sensitive list: Dairy, cereals, edible oils, and several agricultural commodities are kept outside tariff concessions, ensuring domestic producer protection — a politically necessary carve-out consistent with India’s standard CEPA negotiating posture. Services and professional mobility: Bilateral services trade stood at $863 million (2024) with India enjoying a $447 million surplus. Oman has made binding commitments for Indian professionals in accounting, engineering, IT, healthcare, education, and consulting, with increased intra-corporate transferee quotas. AYUSH and traditional medicine provisions add a niche services corridor. Trade facilitation: SPS and TBT provisions, fast-track customs clearance for perishables, EIC certificate acceptance, and NPOP/halal recognition reduce non-tariff barriers — often more significant than tariff cuts for small and mid-sized Indian exporters. 4 — Critical Analysis Favour — Strategic diversification: Reduces India’s export concentration risk; deepens the “Act West” economic diplomacy framework alongside Act East; and signals India’s seriousness as a rule-based trading partner at a time when global supply chains are being reorganised away from single-country dependence post-COVID and post-Ukraine. Favour — Gateway logic: Oman’s ports (Sohar, Duqm, Salalah) position it as a trans-shipment and logistics hub for the wider GCC (UAE, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Kuwait, Bahrain) and East Africa — meaning the CEPA’s effective market access extends well beyond Oman’s $11.18 billion bilateral trade figure. Favour — Regulatory templates: The pharmaceutical fast-track and EIC acceptance model can become templates for future CEPAs — moving India’s trade negotiation strategy beyond pure tariff reduction toward modern, services- and regulation-oriented economic partnerships. Concern — Utilisation risk: Empirical evidence from India’s earlier FTAs (ASEAN, Japan, South Korea) shows that only 20–30% of eligible Indian exports actually use FTA preferences. Paperwork, rules of origin compliance, and awareness gaps reduce real-world gains well below the theoretical tariff access offered by the agreement. Concern — Services commitments asymmetry: India’s services surplus with Oman is just $447 million on $863 million of bilateral services trade. While binding Omani commitments are positive, they remain sector-limited; Mode 4 (professional mobility) commitments are subject to Oman’s Omanisation labour policy, which may limit actual Indian professional deployment in practice. Concern — Agriculture carve-outs: Keeping dairy, cereals, and edible oils outside concessions is politically understandable but reduces the CEPA’s potential as a vehicle for agricultural export diversification — a missed opportunity given India’s large agri-surplus and Oman’s import dependence for food security. 5 — Way Forward FICCI, EEPC, and sector associations must launch CEPA utilisation drives specifically targeting MSMEs in textile clusters (Tamil Nadu), gems and jewellery (Gujarat), engineering (Maharashtra, Punjab), pharmaceuticals (Telangana), and seafood (AP, Kerala) — ensuring the awareness and capacity to comply with rules of origin requirements that determine eligibility for preferential tariffs. The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan must prioritise logistics connectivity from India’s export clusters to Gujarat’s Mundra and Kandla ports — the natural sea-route gateways to Oman — to ensure that tariff wins are not eroded by inland transport and port handling costs that reduce the actual competitiveness of Indian exports at the Omani border. India should leverage the Oman CEPA gateway logic by establishing dedicated India-Oman business councils at Sohar and Duqm free zones, enabling Indian firms to use Oman as a manufacturing and re-export base for the wider GCC market — mirroring how some Indian companies have used UAE free zones under the UAE CEPA. The pharmaceutical fast-track model (internationally approved products getting expedited Omani approval) should be replicated in ongoing CEPA negotiations with the EU and GCC bloc — building a regulatory facilitation template that amplifies India’s comparative advantage in generics without depending solely on tariff reduction. 6 — Data & Key Facts $11.18 BnIndia-Oman bilateral trade, FY2025-26 (up from $8.94 Bn in FY2023-24) 98.08%Tariff lines on which Oman offers duty-free access under CEPA 99.38%India’s exports by value covered under Oman’s duty-free commitment 15.33%India’s exports that entered Oman at zero duty under MFN before CEPA 43%India’s share in Oman’s woven apparel imports $863 MnIndia-Oman bilateral services trade (2024); India surplus $447 Mn $3.7 BnOman’s annual mechanical machinery imports; India’s share only 5% June 1, 2026India-Oman CEPA entry into force ~39%India’s share in Oman’s inorganic chemical imports — already dominant Other India CEPAs (for context): UAE (2022, fastest at 88 days), Australia (2022 interim, 2023 full), EFTA (2024), UK (negotiations ongoing), EU (negotiations ongoing). Oman is the 15th FTA partner-country group for India. Oman’s key ports: Sohar Industrial Port (linked to aluminium, petrochemicals), Duqm Special Economic Zone (targeting heavy industry, tourism), Salalah (major trans-shipment hub on East-West shipping lanes) — all accessible under CEPA investment provisions. 7 — Prelims Pointers CEPA vs FTA — CEPA is broader: covers goods, services, investment, IP, regulatory cooperation. FTA is narrower (primarily goods tariffs). India uses CEPA branding for comprehensive agreements. MFN principle — WTO obligation to give all trading partners the same tariff. FTAs/CEPAs are exceptions under GATT Article XXIV, allowing preferential tariffs among members only. EIC (Export Inspection Council) — Under Ministry of Commerce; certifies export quality. Oman’s acceptance of EIC certificates eliminates duplicative testing — a key NTB removal. NPOP — National Programme for Organic Production; India’s organic certification standard. Oman’s recognition opens organic food export corridor. GCC — Gulf Cooperation Council: Saudi Arabia, UAE, Kuwait, Qatar, Bahrain, Oman. India is currently in CEPA talks with GCC as a bloc, separate from bilateral CEPAs. SPS & TBT — Sanitary & Phytosanitary Measures (food safety, animal/plant health) and Technical Barriers to Trade (standards, testing). Both covered in Oman CEPA — frequently confused in Prelims. Exam note: Do not confuse CEPA (Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement) with CECA (Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement) — India has CECAs with Singapore (2005) and Malaysia (2011), CEPAs with South Korea, Japan, UAE, Mauritius, and now Oman. The structural distinction is frequently tested in Prelims and appears in GS 2 mains answers on bilateral economic relations. 8 — Practice Mains Question “The India-Oman CEPA is not merely a bilateral trade agreement but a strategic instrument for India’s broader integration with the Gulf, Indian Ocean, and East African economies.” Critically examine. GS 2 (International Relations) + GS 3 (Economy & Trade)  ·  15 marks  ·  ~250 words Intro: India-Oman historic ties; CEPA in force June 1, 2026; place it in India’s expanding CEPA network (UAE, Australia, EFTA, UK); frame as part of “Act West” economic diplomacy. Body 1 — Economic gains: 98.08% tariff lines duty-free; textiles (5% tariff removal, 43% market share), chemicals (39% share), engineering goods (5–2% share — big headroom), pharmaceuticals (regulatory fast-track). Data grid figures. Body 2 — Strategic dimensions: Oman as GCC gateway; Sohar-Duqm-Salalah ports; East Africa access; services mobility (IT, healthcare, AYUSH); energy security and diaspora dimensions; Oman’s Vision 2040 creating infrastructure demand India can supply. Body 3 — Challenges: FTA utilisation gap (20–30% historically); rules of origin compliance burden for MSMEs; agricultural carve-outs limiting agri-export diversification; Omanisation labour policy constraining Mode 4 professional mobility commitments. Conclusion: Gateway logic > bilateral trade stats. CEPA utilisation drives via FICCI and sector associations, PM Gati Shakti port connectivity, and pharma regulatory template as way forward. 9 — Practice MCQ Consider the following statements about the India-Oman CEPA (in force June 1, 2026): 1. Before the CEPA, over 80% of India’s exports to Oman entered at zero duty under the MFN regime. 2. Oman has offered duty-free access on 98.08% of its tariff lines, covering 99.38% of India’s exports by value. 3. The CEPA provides for regulatory fast-tracking of Indian pharmaceutical products approved by recognised international regulators. 4. Dairy, cereals, and edible oils are fully included in Oman’s tariff concession schedule under the CEPA. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1, 2 and 4 only(d) 2, 3 and 4 only Editorial 02 of 02 Article 02 Fifteen FTAs, 27 Countries, Four Challenges Ajay Srivastava  ·  Indian Express Relevance: India’s FTA policy, trade deficits, inverted duty structures, and “Make in India” vs “Make in ASEAN” — core GS 3 (Economy, Trade, Industry) and GS 2 (Government Policy) content with significant Mains Essay potential around India’s integration with global value chains. GS 3 — Economy & TradeGS 3 — Industry & ManufacturingGS 2 — Government PolicyEssay — India & Global Economy 1 — Issue in Brief With the India-Oman CEPA in force, India now has 15 FTAs covering 27 countries. Nine more agreements covering 42 countries are nearing completion — which would take India’s FTA network to 69 countries accounting for ~75% of India’s exports, a dramatic expansion of trade treaty coverage over the past decade. The author argues that this rapid FTA expansion, while strategically sound in intent, is producing four structural challenges that are damaging India’s manufacturing competitiveness, widening trade deficits, and encouraging firms to produce abroad and sell to India rather than producing in India for domestic and export markets. The core diagnostic: India’s trade-weighted MFN tariff (~12.6%) is significantly higher than FTA partners (near zero in Singapore, below 4% in Japan/Australia/Malaysia/UAE), creating a fundamental asymmetry where FTAs give foreign exporters a major advantage in the Indian market while providing limited additional access for Indian exporters in already-open partner markets. The article calls for structural reform of India’s tariff architecture — particularly on industrial inputs — to ensure FTAs strengthen domestic manufacturing rather than inadvertently hollowing it out by incentivising “Make in ASEAN, Sell in India.” 2 — Static Background India’s FTA history: Early agreements with ASEAN (goods 2010, services 2012), Japan (2011), South Korea (2010), Singapore (CECA, 2005), Sri Lanka (1998), Nepal, Bhutan, Thailand, Malaysia. Pre-2022, all were relatively cautious agreements; the UAE CEPA (2022) marked a strategic acceleration. Rules of Origin (RoO) are criteria that determine whether a product qualifies as originating from an FTA partner country and thus eligible for preferential tariffs. Complex RoO increase the compliance cost for exporters; this is a key reason why Indian exporters underuse FTA preferences even when they exist. An Inverted Duty Structure arises when import duties on inputs (raw materials, components) are higher than duties on finished products. This disadvantages domestic manufacturers by raising their input costs while exposing them to duty-free competition from fully assembled imports. It directly undermines “Make in India” objectives. The ASEAN-China FTA has enabled Chinese investment in Vietnam, Thailand, Indonesia, and Malaysia to use these countries as export platforms into India under the India-ASEAN FTA — a phenomenon called tariff arbitrage or FTA-shopping, which the article flags as a structural consequence of India’s tariff asymmetry. India’s trade-weighted MFN tariff (~12.6%) compares unfavourably to Singapore (near zero), Japan (<4%), Australia (<4%), Malaysia (<4%), UAE (<4%). In India, only ~6% of imports enter duty-free under MFN — compared to 80%+ in Japan and Malaysia, and 50%+ in EU and UK. 3 — Key Dimensions Challenge 1 — Rising trade deficits: India’s trade deficit with ASEAN grew 381% between 2007–09 and 2023–25; with Japan 318%; with South Korea 268% — compared to 142% with the rest of the world. In FY2025, India exported $48.6 billion to UAE, Australia, Mauritius and EFTA but imported ~$100 billion — a $50+ billion deficit from these FTA partners alone. Challenge 2 — Low FTA utilisation by Indian exporters: Only an estimated 20–30% of India’s eligible exports actually use FTA preferences. When partner-country MFN tariffs are already near zero, the incentive to comply with rules of origin (CoO paperwork, value-addition tests) is weak since the tariff savings are too small to justify compliance costs. In contrast, import-side utilisation is 60–70% because India’s higher MFN tariffs make the savings from FTA preferences large and worth claiming. Challenge 3 — Inverted duty structures: Steel and aluminium face 7.5–10% MFN duties in India, but machinery and engineering products made from them can enter duty-free under multiple FTAs. Similarly, chemical inputs (caustic soda, soda ash, polypropylene, PVC, SBR) attract duties while downstream finished goods enter at low or zero tariff — raising production costs for Indian manufacturers relative to duty-free imports, undermining Make in India. Challenge 4 — Make in ASEAN, Sell in India: When it is cheaper to manufacture in Vietnam/Thailand/Indonesia and export duty-free to India than to produce in India, investment and jobs migrate abroad. Chinese companies have invested heavily in ASEAN for precisely this purpose; some Indian firms too have set up factories there for duty-free re-entry into the Indian market. This is the most structurally damaging outcome: FTAs actively incentivising offshoring from India. Asymmetry mechanics: India’s 12.6% trade-weighted MFN tariff vs near-zero rates in most FTA partners means a 50% tariff cut under an FTA gives a foreign exporter a major cost advantage in India, while the same cut for an Indian exporter into a partner country often saves nothing because the partner’s pre-FTA tariff was already near zero. South Asia exception: India’s trade surplus with South Asia (SAARC) expanded from $6.7 billion to $20 billion over the same period — the one regional bloc where India is the open economy relative to partners, reversing the asymmetry that plagues FTAs with developed and ASEAN partners. 4 — Critical Analysis Favour — FTAs remain necessary: Despite the four challenges, not having FTAs carries its own cost — Indian exporters face higher tariffs in partner markets than competitors from countries that do have FTAs (e.g., EU or ASEAN countries). Being outside FTA networks risks Indian exports being systematically displaced in third-country markets by more-preferred suppliers. Favour — Services and investment dimension: The critique focuses heavily on goods trade deficits. India’s services sector — where India has structural comparative advantage (IT, financial services, AYUSH, education) — benefits significantly from FTA Mode 4 and Mode 3 commitments. The deficit calculus changes materially when services are incorporated into the bilateral balance. Concern — Tariff asymmetry is structural and persistent: India cannot rapidly reduce its MFN tariffs on industrial inputs without affecting domestic industries that depend on that protection. Yet without doing so, the inverted duty problem worsens with every new FTA signed. This creates a policy trap: negotiate more FTAs to improve export access while simultaneously deepening the domestic manufacturing cost disadvantage. Concern — China’s ASEAN proxy: The author correctly identifies that India’s FTAs with ASEAN have indirectly benefited China-origin goods routed through ASEAN production platforms. Weak rules of origin in the India-ASEAN FTA — particularly the “change in tariff classification” standard — make it relatively easy to claim ASEAN origin with minimal value addition in the partner country. Concern — Investment outflow risk: If the Make in ASEAN trend deepens, PLI (Production Linked Incentive) scheme gains in electronics, pharmaceuticals, and textiles could be partially offset by Indian companies themselves investing abroad to access the Indian market at lower tariffs. This would reduce the domestic employment and value-addition multiplier that PLI is designed to generate. 5 — Way Forward Rationalise input tariffs under ITAF: The Inverted Tariff Anomaly Framework (through Union Budget and CBIC) must systematically reduce duties on key industrial inputs — steel, aluminium, chemical intermediates, electronics components — to align India’s cost structure with global norms, eliminating the inverted duty trap without waiting for FTA negotiation cycles. Strengthen Rules of Origin: The India-ASEAN FTA must be renegotiated to adopt stricter RoO — minimum value addition requirements of 40–50% rather than mere change-of-tariff-heading tests — to prevent China-origin goods from gaining preferential access to India through minimal ASEAN processing. This is a key structural defence against the “Make in ASEAN, Sell in India” phenomenon. Build an FTA Utilisation Cell within DPIIT and Commerce Ministry tasked exclusively with raising Indian exporter utilisation from ~25% to 60%+ through standardised CoO documentation, digital certification platforms, and sector-specific awareness campaigns targeting the MSMEs and smaller exporters who bear disproportionate compliance costs relative to tariff savings. Apply Trade Adjustment Assistance from FTA savings (domestic industries benefiting from reduced input tariffs) to support workers and industries adversely affected by import surges — building the political economy for further tariff rationalisation without triggering protectionist backlash from domestic producer lobbies. 6 — Data & Key Facts 15 FTAsIndia’s current FTA count (27 countries); 9 more covering 42 countries nearing completion 381%Growth in India’s trade deficit with ASEAN between 2007–09 and 2023–25 $62 BnIndia’s average annual trade deficit with ASEAN, Japan, South Korea (past 3 years) 12.6%India’s trade-weighted MFN tariff rate vs near-zero in Singapore, <4% in Japan/UAE/Australia 20–30%Estimated FTA utilisation rate by Indian exporters; import-side utilisation 60–70% ~6%Share of imports entering India duty-free under MFN — vs 80%+ in Japan/Malaysia, 50%+ in EU/UK $50+ BnIndia’s trade deficit with UAE, Australia, Mauritius, EFTA in FY2025 alone ($48.6 Bn exports vs ~$100 Bn imports) 75%Share of India’s exports that will be covered by FTA partners once all 9 pending agreements are finalised India-ASEAN FTA context: Goods FTA operational since 2010; India’s deficit with ASEAN grew 381% post-FTA vs 142% with rest of world — the clearest empirical case for the structural asymmetry argument; review of RoO has been pending since 2018, with ASEAN members resisting tighter origin requirements. South Asia exception data: India’s surplus with South Asia grew from $6.7 billion to $20 billion (2007–09 to 2023–25) — the one region where India is the more open economy, confirming that the asymmetry hypothesis holds in reverse when India’s tariffs are lower than the partner’s. 7 — Prelims Pointers Rules of Origin (RoO) — Criteria determining if a product qualifies as originating from an FTA partner. Types: Wholly Obtained, Substantial Transformation (CTH or value addition). Stricter RoO = harder to abuse via third-country routing. Inverted Duty Structure — When import duty on inputs > duty on finished product. Results in higher production cost for domestic manufacturers; worsened by FTAs bringing finished goods to zero duty while raw material duties remain. Corrected via Budget tariff rationalisation or GST compensation. MFN Tariff — Most Favoured Nation rate applied to all WTO members. India’s trade-weighted average: ~12.6%. This is the base from which FTA cuts are measured. High MFN = FTA cuts give larger advantage to foreign exporters in India. FTA Utilisation Rate — Share of eligible trade actually using preferential tariffs. India’s export-side: ~20–30%; import-side: ~60–70%. Gap explained by tariff asymmetry between India and most FTA partners. PLI Scheme — Production Linked Incentive: incentivises domestic manufacturing investment. Sectors include electronics, pharma, textiles, auto, specialty chemicals. At risk if inverted duties and FTA arbitrage make ASEAN manufacturing more attractive than India. India-ASEAN FTA — Goods FTA operational 2010; Services/Investment 2015. India’s trade deficit with ASEAN grew 381% post-FTA. Under review for stricter RoO since ~2018. Distinguishable from RCEP (which India did not join in 2020). Exam note: UPSC frequently tests the distinction between FTA (goods tariffs primarily), CEPA (comprehensive), and CECA (cooperation-heavy, usually with investment chapters). Also distinguish India’s ASEAN FTA (joined) from RCEP (did not join, 2020) — India’s withdrawal from RCEP is directly linked to the inverted duty and trade deficit concerns raised in this article. 8 — Practice Mains Question “India’s expanding Free Trade Agreement network risks hollowing out domestic manufacturing rather than strengthening it, unless accompanied by fundamental reform of India’s tariff structure on industrial inputs.” Critically examine. GS 3 (Economy & Trade) + GS 2 (Government Policy)  ·  15 marks  ·  ~250 words Intro: India’s 15 FTAs covering 27 countries; 9 more pending; 75% of exports covered; frame as both opportunity and structural challenge. India’s RCEP withdrawal (2020) as a policy signal of concern. Body 1 — Four challenges: Rising deficits (ASEAN +381%, Japan +318%, South Korea +268%); low utilisation by Indian exporters (20–30% vs 60–70% import-side); inverted duty structures (steel/aluminium 7.5–10% vs duty-free finished goods); Make in ASEAN phenomenon (Chinese investment in Vietnam/Thailand/Indonesia targeting Indian market). Body 2 — Root cause: India’s MFN tariff (~12.6%) vs near-zero in FTA partners; only 6% of India’s imports enter duty-free under MFN vs 80%+ in Japan/Malaysia. Asymmetry means FTAs benefit foreign exporters in India far more than Indian exporters abroad. Conclusion: Not anti-FTA but pro-reform. Tighten RoO in India-ASEAN FTA; rationalise input tariffs through annual Budget; build FTA Utilisation Cell; apply PLI-type incentives to sectors most exposed to FTA-driven competition. South Asia surplus proves the asymmetry thesis — fix the tariff structure, not the treaty-making. 9 — Practice MCQ Consider the following statements about India’s FTA trade outcomes: 1. India’s trade deficit with ASEAN grew by 381% between 2007–09 and 2023–25, compared to 142% with the rest of the world. 2. An estimated 60–70% of India’s eligible exports use FTA preferential tariffs, while only 20–30% of eligible imports do so. 3. India’s trade-weighted MFN tariff is approximately 12.6%, significantly higher than most of its FTA partner countries. 4. India’s trade surplus with South Asia expanded from $6.7 billion to $20 billion over the same period as FTA-linked deficits grew with ASEAN and East Asia. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only(b) 1, 3 and 4 only(c) 2, 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Contents 09 June 2026 India at WTO Trade & Environment Week 2026 — Carbon Credit Trading Scheme and NDC AchievementsGS3 E85 Fuel Launch — India's Flex-Fuel TransitionGS3 Sambhar Lake Environmental Crisis — Ecology, Threats & ConservationGS3 India's 7th Regional Meteorological Centre at JammuGS3 NFHS-6: What Was Lost and What Was GainedGS2 SIPRI Yearbook 2026 — India's Nuclear Arsenal and Military ExpenditureGS2 IMI-Resistant Mustard Hybrids — Solving Orobanche, Creating New RisksGS3 Quantum Randomness Amplification — A Breakthrough in Digital SecurityGS3 Philippines 7.8 Magnitude Earthquake — Places in the NewsGS2 Article 01 India at WTO Trade & Environment Week 2026 — Carbon Credit Trading Scheme and NDC Achievements GS Paper 3 — Environment & Ecology | Climate Change | Indian Economy | GS Paper 2 — Government Policies Why in News On World Environment Day (June 5, 2026), India organised "India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme and Standardisation in Renewable Energy" at the WTO Trade and Environment Week 2026 in Geneva, coordinated by MoEFCC, BEE, Ministry of Power, and MNRE. On June 2, India and Japan held bilateral discussions on trade-restrictive climate measures — including the EU's CBAM — on the sidelines of the same event. NDC Achievements — Ahead of Schedule Non-fossil fuel installed capacity: Reached 52.57% as of February 2026 (PIB cites 53.21% for March 2026) — surpassing the 50% NDC target nearly five years ahead of the 2030 deadline. Emissions intensity of GDP: Declined by 37.38% between 2005 and 2022 against the NDC target of 33–35% by 2030. Updated NDC 3.0 (2031–35) raises the target to 47% by 2035. Carbon sink: ~2.3 billion tonnes CO₂ equivalent added through forest cover by 2021; NDC 3.0 target raised to 4 billion tonnes by 2035. India reiterated adherence to CBDR-RC (Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities) and equity as its guiding UNFCCC principles. The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) — Architecture The CCTS was notified by the Ministry of Power on June 28, 2023 under the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022. It established the Indian Carbon Market (ICM) — an intensity-based baseline-and-credit system (not a pure cap-and-trade). Official ICM start date: January 1, 2025. How It Works Carbon Credit Certificates (CCCs): Each CCC = 1 tonne CO₂ equivalent reduced/avoided/removed; issued by BEE to entities that over-perform emission intensity targets. Compliance mechanism: ~740 obligated entities in nine energy-intensive sectors (refinery, petrochemicals, steel, cement, etc.) carry legally binding emission intensity targets for 2025–26 and 2026–27. Offset mechanism: Non-obligated entities may voluntarily register and earn CCCs. The CCTS is expected to cover over 700 million tonnes of CO₂e — among the world's largest emissions trading systems at full operation. Governance Structure Institution Role NSCICM National Steering Committee for ICM; chaired by Secretary, Ministry of Power; co-chaired by Secretary, MoEFCC BEE (Bureau of Energy Efficiency) Administrator; issues CCCs; under Ministry of Power — NOT MoEFCC CERC Central Electricity Regulatory Commission; regulates trading of CCCs on power exchanges GCIL Grid Controller of India Limited; serves as the registry for entity registration and transaction records MoEFCC Designates covered entities; notifies sectoral GHG emission targets under Environment Protection Act Green Hydrogen Mission India presented progress under the National Green Hydrogen Mission — including notified emission thresholds and technical criteria for classifying hydrogen as "Green Hydrogen." Target: 5 MMT green hydrogen/year by 2030; outlay: ₹19,744 crore. Concerns Capacity vs. Generation Gap: Non-fossil installed capacity is ~52%, but actual renewable energy generation was only ~22% of total electricity in 2024–25 (CEA Annual Report) — intermittency and storage gaps are the culprit. No Coal Phase-Out Plan: India continues building new coal plants; NDC achievements in capacity do not automatically translate into deep decarbonisation. ICM Registry Delays: GCIL registry not fully operationalised as of mid-2025 — affects market credibility. CBAM Compliance Burden: The EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism imposes compliance costs on Indian exporters of steel, aluminium, and fertilisers. Ambition Gap: Climate Action Tracker notes India's NDC targets will be over-achieved under current policies — may not drive additional emissions reductions. Government Interventions Scheme / Policy Key Detail CCTS, 2023 Notified by Ministry of Power; establishes ICM; intensity-based baseline-and-credit system National Green Hydrogen Mission ₹19,744 crore; target 5 MMT green hydrogen/year by 2030 PM-Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana Rooftop solar for 1 crore households; contributes to non-fossil capacity growth NDC 3.0 (2031–35) 47% emissions intensity cut, 60% non-fossil capacity, 4 BT carbon sink — all by 2035 Way Forward Operationalise GCIL registry fully — ICM credibility depends on a robust, accessible, and transparent registry platform. Bridge the capacity–generation gap: Invest in battery storage, pumped hydro, and grid flexibility. Coal transition roadmap: Develop a credible, just transition plan for coal-dependent regions and workers. Multilateral engagement on CBAM: Build WTO/G20 coalitions against unilateral trade-restrictive climate measures that burden developing countries. Strengthen Article 6 engagement: Actively participate in Paris Agreement Article 6 mechanisms for international carbon credit trading. Conclusion India's performance at WTO Trade and Environment Week 2026 reflects a country that has turned its NDC commitments into measurable achievements. The CCTS is India's boldest institutional step yet to price carbon domestically. However, the gap between installed capacity and actual clean generation, and the absence of a coal transition plan, remain the most significant structural challenges on the path to long-term decarbonisation. Prelims Pointers CCTS: Notified by Ministry of Power (NOT MoEFCC) under the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022; establishes the Indian Carbon Market (ICM). A common exam trap is to assume MoEFCC notified it. CCC (Carbon Credit Certificate): Issued by BEE; 1 CCC = 1 tonne CO₂ equivalent reduced/removed/avoided; traded on power exchanges regulated by CERC. BEE (Bureau of Energy Efficiency): Administrator of CCTS; under Ministry of Power — do not confuse with MoEFCC. GCIL (Grid Controller of India Limited): Acts as the registry for the Indian Carbon Market. Baseline-and-Credit vs Cap-and-Trade: India's ICM is intensity-based baseline-and-credit — companies earn credits for cutting emission intensity below a target; there is no absolute emissions cap as in the EU ETS. CBDR-RC: Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities — core UNFCCC principle recognising developed nations' greater historical responsibility for climate change. CBAM (EU Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism): EU policy imposing a carbon cost on imports of steel, aluminium, fertilisers, cement — affects Indian exports to the EU. Green Hydrogen: Produced via electrolysis using renewable electricity; classified under the National Green Hydrogen Mission based on notified emission thresholds. NDC 3.0 (2031–35): Approved by Cabinet March 2026; targets 47% emissions intensity cut, 60% non-fossil capacity, 4 billion tonne carbon sink — all by 2035. Paris Agreement (2015): Adopted at COP21; limits warming to well below 2°C, preferably 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels. Practice Mains Question "India's achievements under its Nationally Determined Contributions are impressive on paper, but the gap between installed capacity and actual clean generation reveals structural limits. Critically examine India's carbon market architecture under the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme and its adequacy to meet long-term climate goals." GS Paper 3  |  250 words  |  15 marks Prelims Practice MCQ The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), 2023 was notified under which legislation, and which body acts as its administrator? (a)Environment Protection Act, 1986 — administered by MoEFCC (b)Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (as amended in 2022) — administered by CERC (c)Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022 — administered by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) (d)National Action Plan on Climate Change — administered by NITI Aayog Correct Answer: (c) The CCTS was notified by the Ministry of Power under the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022. BEE is the administrator — not MoEFCC or CERC. CERC regulates trading on exchanges; GCIL is the registry. Option (b) is partially correct on the legislation but wrong on the administrator. Article 02 E85 Fuel Launch — India's Flex-Fuel Transition GS Paper 3 — Energy Security | Agriculture | Indian Economy | GS Paper 2 — Government Policies Why in News Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas Hardeep Singh Puri launched E85 fuel at an IndianOil retail outlet in New Delhi on World Environment Day 2026 (June 5, 2026). The rollout commenced at 48 Public Sector OMC retail outlets (IndianOil, BPCL, HPCL). Only three FFV models are currently available in India at launch. What is E85? E85 consists of 80–85% ethanol + 14–19% petrol, designed exclusively for Flex-Fuel Vehicles (FFVs) — vehicles capable of running on any ethanol-petrol blend from E20 to E100. It is not compatible with standard petrol or E20 vehicles. The Ethanol Blend Spectrum Blend Composition Vehicle Compatibility E20 20% ethanol + 80% petrol Modern vehicles (post-2008); standard fuel since 2025 E85 80–85% ethanol + 14–19% petrol Dedicated flex-fuel engine required E100 100% ethanol Purpose-built engine; special cold-start systems needed Key Highlights India's Ethanol Blending Journey Ethanol blending rose from 1.53% in 2014 to 20% in 2025 — original 2030 target achieved five years ahead of schedule. Substituted ~302 lakh metric tonnes of crude oil imports; saved over ₹1.84 lakh crore in foreign exchange. Benefits of E85 Price: ~₹20/litre cheaper than conventional petrol — economic benefit directly passed to consumers. Emissions: Lifecycle GHG emissions reduced by ~61% compared to conventional petrol vehicles. Air quality: Near-zero particulate matter emissions → improved urban air quality. Engine performance: Research Octane Number (RON) of ~108 (vs ~91–95 for regular petrol) → better knock resistance, higher compression ratios, more efficient combustion. Farmer income: Ethanol from sugarcane, maize, and agricultural feedstocks — farmers evolve from Annadatas (food providers) to Urjadatas (energy providers). Rollout Roadmap Current: 48 OMC retail outlets  →  500 by December 2026  →  ~5,000 by December 2027 Goal: Raise aggregate ethanol blending to ~26% by 2030–31 Projected Impact (if 50% of new vehicles become FFVs) Ethanol demand: 312 crore litres  |  Income to farmers: ₹12,403 crore Foreign exchange savings: ₹15,151 crore/year  |  CO₂ reduction: 66.4 lakh metric tonnes Global Inspiration: Brazil Model Brazil has over 80% of its light vehicle fleet operating on flex-fuel technology — the global proof-of-concept for long-term viability of high-ethanol blends. Concerns Limited FFV availability: Only 3 models at launch; consumer adoption will lag until the auto industry scales up. Food vs. fuel tension: High ethanol demand could compete with food grain production; sugarcane and maize diversion risks driving up food prices. Water intensity: Sugarcane-based ethanol is water-intensive — a concern in water-scarce regions of Rajasthan, Maharashtra, and Karnataka. State taxation inconsistency: Differential state taxes on E85 and FFVs could create price distortions. Way Forward Mandate FFV compatibility through revised BIS automotive norms for new vehicles above a certain engine size. 2G Ethanol push: Promote second-generation ethanol from agricultural residue (paddy straw, bagasse) to delink ethanol from food crops. Harmonise state taxation on E85 and FFVs to prevent price distortions. Conclusion E85's launch marks India's transition from a blending mandate to a structured flex-fuel ecosystem — simultaneously addressing energy security, farmer income, import substitution, and urban air quality. Success depends on how quickly the auto industry scales FFV availability and how effectively states align taxation policies. Prelims Pointers E85: 80–85% ethanol + 14–19% petrol; exclusively for Flex-Fuel Vehicles (FFVs); priced ~₹20/litre cheaper than petrol. FFV (Flex-Fuel Vehicle): Can run on any blend from E20 to E100; equipped with a specialised ECU (Engine Control Unit) that detects ethanol content and automatically adjusts combustion parameters. RON (Research Octane Number): Measures a fuel's resistance to engine knock; E85 RON is ~108 vs ~91–95 for regular petrol — higher RON = better engine performance. Do not confuse with RON used as an acronym elsewhere. E20: Standard petrol since 2025; 20% ethanol + 80% petrol; compatible with modern petrol vehicles with minimal modification. Ethanol blending: Rose from 1.53% (2014) to 20% (2025); original 2030 target achieved five years early. National Biofuels Policy, 2018: Expanded feedstocks beyond sugarcane molasses to maize, damaged food grains, surplus rice — key for food-fuel balance. 2G Ethanol (Second Generation): Produced from agricultural residue/waste (bagasse, paddy straw) — reduces food vs. fuel competition. OMCs: Oil Marketing Companies — IndianOil (IOCL), BPCL, HPCL — the three public sector OMCs managing E85 rollout. Brazil's flex-fuel model: Over 80% of light vehicles use flex-fuel technology — the global proof-of-concept cited by India for long-term viability. Practice Mains Question "India's E85 fuel launch represents a convergence of energy security, agricultural policy, and environmental goals. Critically examine the opportunities and structural challenges in scaling India's flex-fuel ecosystem." GS Paper 3  |  250 words  |  15 marks Prelims Practice MCQ Assertion (A): E85 fuel can be used in any modern petrol vehicle sold in India after 2020. Reason (R): E85 has a Research Octane Number (RON) of approximately 108, which is higher than regular petrol. Which of the following is correct? (a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (b)Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c)A is false, but R is true (d)Both A and R are false Correct Answer: (c) Assertion A is false — E85 is designed exclusively for Flex-Fuel Vehicles (FFVs); use in standard petrol vehicles is prohibited and potentially damaging. Reason R is true — E85's RON of ~108 is indeed higher than regular petrol (~91–95), making it superior for knock resistance and combustion efficiency. Article 03 Sambhar Lake Environmental Crisis — Ecology, Threats & Conservation GS Paper 3 — Environment & Ecology | Biodiversity Conservation | Wetlands Sambhar Lake, Rajasthan — India's largest inland saline lake and a Ramsar-designated wetland of international importance. Why in News Research reveals that the rapid expansion of industrial and illegal salt pans is severely damaging the hydrology and biodiversity of Sambhar Lake — India's largest inland saline wetland. Satellite analyses (1984–2023) show a drastic decline in wetland area, worsened by industrial brine extraction running year-round. About Sambhar Lake Location: ~80 km southwest of Jaipur, Rajasthan; spans Jaipur, Nagaur, and Ajmer districts; within the Aravalli Range. Type: India's largest inland saline (saltwater) lake; size fluctuates between 190–230 sq km depending on monsoon. Fed by: Six monsoon-dependent rivers — Mentha (Mantha), Rupangarh, Khari, Khandela, Medtha, and Samod. Salt production: ~1,96,000 tonnes/year of clean salt — approximately 9% of India's total salt production. Ramsar Site: Designated in 1990 as a wetland of international importance. Key Biodiversity Area (KBA): Recognised in 2004. Avian significance: Vital wintering habitat for Northern Asian migratory birds; India's second-largest flamingo breeding ground. Ecological niche: Hypersaline ecosystem supporting halophilic microbes, spirulina, desert foxes, and saw-scaled vipers. Traditional vs Industrial Salt Production Aspect Traditional Industrial Water source Natural monsoon floodwater Deep borewells pumping sub-soil brine year-round Season Seasonal (dry season crystallisation) Continuous extraction throughout the year Environmental impact Minimal — works with natural hydrology Severe; permanently alters hydrology and aquifer levels How Salt Pans are Threatening Sambhar Lake Encroachment and Area Loss Illegal units have consumed approximately 30% of the lake's original surface area. Wetland area plummeted from 30.7% to just 3.4% of the lake zone. Water catchment area fell from 53,000 sq km (1969) to 7,560 sq km (2004). Bird Mortality A 2019 avian botulism outbreak (caused by Clostridium botulinum toxin in low-oxygen, high-temperature industrial conditions) killed over 20,000 birds. High-voltage industrial wires regularly electrocute migratory birds. Concerns Irreversible collapse risk: Over two-thirds of wetland area lost — without intervention, damage may be permanent. Regulatory failure: Overlapping jurisdiction among state forest department, district administration, and Rajasthan Salt Department enables continued illegal expansion. Climate vulnerability: Reduced catchment area makes the lake increasingly vulnerable to drought and erratic rainfall. RAMSAR obligations: India has international obligations under the Ramsar Convention (1971) to protect designated wetlands — chronic degradation violates this commitment. Way Forward Demarcate and fence the core wetland area; phase out illegal borewells; mandate seasonal extraction with environmental clearances. Ecological restoration: Remove illegal embankments and revive natural river channels. Unified governance: Create a dedicated Sambhar Lake Authority with clear, non-overlapping jurisdiction. Alternative livelihoods: Develop eco-tourism and flamingo-watching circuits for affected communities. Conclusion Sambhar Lake is a textbook case of the tragedy of the commons — a shared ecological resource degraded by unregulated extraction. Its loss would simultaneously collapse a Ramsar-designated biodiversity hotspot, a significant share of India's salt production, and the livelihoods of thousands of families. The window for intervention is narrowing rapidly. Prelims Pointers Sambhar Lake: India's largest inland saline lake; Rajasthan (Jaipur–Nagaur–Ajmer); Ramsar Site since 1990; contributes ~9% of India's total salt production. Ramsar Convention (1971): International wetland treaty; named after Ramsar, Iran; India has 89 Ramsar sites (as of 2024). A Ramsar designation is international recognition only — it does NOT automatically confer legal protection under Indian domestic law. Key Biodiversity Area (KBA): Sites identified by BirdLife International and IUCN as critical for biodiversity conservation. Halophiles: Organisms that thrive in high-salt environments; Sambhar's hypersaline conditions support unique halophilic microbes and spirulina. Spirulina: Blue-green algae (cyanobacterium) found in saline/alkaline lakes; commercially harvested as a protein supplement. Avian Botulism: Caused by Clostridium botulinum toxin; proliferates in warm, anaerobic (low-oxygen) water — industrial disruption of Sambhar's water chemistry directly triggers this. Six feeder rivers: Mentha, Rupangarh, Khari, Khandela, Medtha, Samod — all monsoon-dependent surface water inflows. Industrial salt pans draw on deep groundwater via borewells — a key distinction. Practice Mains Question "Sambhar Lake's degradation is as much a governance failure as it is an ecological one. Examine the threats to India's largest inland saline lake and the institutional reforms needed to reconcile salt production with wetland conservation." GS Paper 3  |  250 words  |  15 marks Prelims Practice MCQ Consider the following pairs — Lake : State. 1. Sambhar — Rajasthan 2. Loktak — Manipur 3. Chilika — Andhra Pradesh 4. Kolleru — Andhra Pradesh Which of the pairs above are correctly matched? (a)1, 2, and 4 only (b)1 and 2 only (c)2, 3, and 4 only (d)1, 2, 3, and 4 Correct Answer: (a) Pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 3 is incorrect — Chilika Lake is in Odisha, not Andhra Pradesh; it is India's largest coastal lagoon and the largest wintering ground for migratory waterfowl in the Indian subcontinent. Kolleru Lake is indeed in Andhra Pradesh. Loktak Lake (Manipur) is India's largest freshwater lake, famous for floating phumdis (biomass islands). Article 04 India's 7th Regional Meteorological Centre at Jammu GS Paper 3 — Science & Technology | Disaster Management | GS Paper 2 — Government Policies Why in News Union Minister for Science & Technology and Earth Sciences Dr. Jitendra Singh inaugurated India's 7th Regional Meteorological Centre (RMC) at Jammu on June 5, 2026. He also announced that a similar centre would soon be established in Lucknow — India's proposed 8th RMC — as part of a restructuring of the India Meteorological Department (IMD)'s regional operations. Key Highlights IMD's RMC Network — Before and After IMD previously operated through six RMCs at: Mumbai, Chennai, New Delhi, Kolkata, Nagpur, and Guwahati. RMC Delhi covered an unwieldy area including J&K, Ladakh, HP, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Haryana, UP, and Rajasthan simultaneously. Centre Coverage Area RMC Jammu (New — 7th) Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh RMC Lucknow (Proposed — 8th) Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand Services Offered by RMC Jammu District-level forecasts, mountain weather forecasts, tourist and city-specific advisories. Early warnings for: flash floods, cloudbursts, avalanches, heavy snowfall, thunderstorms, and landslides. Pilgrimage safety advisories for Amarnath and Vaishno Devi yatra. Support for farmers, transport operators, hydropower projects, security forces, and disaster management agencies. Infrastructure Expansion in J&K/Ladakh (2014 vs 2026) Infrastructure 2014 2026 Doppler Weather Radars (DWRs) 0 4 operational (Jammu, Srinagar, Leh, Banihal Top); 5 more proposed under Mission Mausam Automatic Weather Stations (AWSs) 13 25 (recently added at Kargil, Ramban, Vaishno Devi) Automatic Rain Gauges (ARGs) 14 16 Daily Rainfall Monitoring Stations 30 85 International Recognition and Seismology The Srinagar Meteorological Observatory (over 100 years old) has been recognised by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) as a Centennial Observing Station. Seismic stations in J&K upgraded to digital systems; new observatory proposed at Kishtwar. Five seismic stations transmit near real-time data to the National Centre for Seismology (NCS). Concerns Spatial variability challenge: High-altitude Himalayan terrain shows extreme weather variation over short distances — dense radar networks cannot fully resolve this. Last-mile communication gap: Lead time for flash floods/cloudbursts is extremely short; community-level early warning dissemination remains a bottleneck. Inter-agency silos: Weather (IMD), seismology (NCS), and disaster management (NDMA) data managed separately — better integration needed for compound events. Way Forward Complete the five proposed DWRs under Mission Mausam for Anantnag, Rajouri, Baramulla, Kishtwar, and Doda. Integrate IMD forecasts with NDMA's Common Alert Protocol for automated last-mile warnings. Extend AWS network to all Himalayan pilgrimage and border routes. Conclusion RMC Jammu plugs a critical geographic gap in India's meteorological infrastructure. For a region characterised by glaciated peaks, active seismic zones, and critical security and pilgrimage activities, dedicated weather forecasting is not a luxury — it is a strategic necessity. Prelims Pointers IMD (India Meteorological Department): Under Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES); primary national weather forecasting agency. India now has 7 RMCs: Mumbai, Chennai, New Delhi, Kolkata, Nagpur, Guwahati, Jammu (newest, 2026). Doppler Weather Radar (DWR): Measures both precipitation intensity AND wind velocity using the Doppler effect — provides 3D wind field data; far more capable than conventional rain-only radars; critical for detecting thunderstorms, cyclones, and cloudbursts. Automatic Weather Station (AWS): Unmanned sensor-based station; automatically collects temperature, humidity, wind speed, pressure, and rainfall in near-real time. Mission Mausam: Government programme to modernise and expand India's weather observation and forecasting infrastructure — includes expanding DWR and AWS networks nationwide. WMO (World Meteorological Organization): UN specialised agency for meteorology; headquartered in Geneva. Centennial Observing Station (WMO): Stations with over 100 years of continuous, high-quality records — globally important for long-term climate baseline data; Srinagar Observatory holds this designation. NCS (National Centre for Seismology): Under Ministry of Earth Sciences; monitors earthquakes across India; J&K falls in India's Seismic Zone V — highest-risk zone. Practice Mains Question "Dedicated regional meteorological infrastructure is as critical as disaster response capacity for a climate-vulnerable Himalayan region like Jammu & Kashmir. Evaluate the significance of RMC Jammu and the broader challenges in Himalayan weather forecasting." GS Paper 3  |  150 words  |  10 marks Prelims Practice MCQ Which of the following correctly describes a Doppler Weather Radar (DWR)? (a)A radar that measures only rainfall intensity using radio waves reflected off rain droplets (b)A satellite-based system for measuring cloud-top temperatures and storm movement (c)A radar system that measures both precipitation intensity and wind velocity using the Doppler effect, providing three-dimensional wind field data (d)An instrument mounted on weather balloons to measure upper-atmosphere temperature and humidity Correct Answer: (c) A Doppler Weather Radar uses the Doppler effect (frequency shift of reflected radio waves) to measure both precipitation intensity and radial wind velocity. This enables detection of thunderstorm rotation, wind shear, and cyclone structure — capabilities absent in conventional radars. Option (d) describes a radiosonde, not a Doppler radar. Article 05 NFHS-6: What Was Lost and What Was Gained GS Paper 2 — Health | Government Policies & Interventions | Social Issues | Governance & Accountability Why in News The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) released the fact sheets of NFHS-6 on May 29, 2026, covering data from 2023–24 from approximately 6.8 lakh households across all States and UTs except Manipur. The survey sparked significant controversy over the net reduction of 30 indicators — including removal of anaemia, child mortality, sex ratio at birth, sanitation, and clean cooking fuel data. About NFHS Commissioned by: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). Conducted by: International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai. Frequency: Every ~5 years; conducted since 1992–93 (NFHS-1). Used by UNICEF, UNFPA, USAID, and multilateral agencies for policy planning. Round Year Key Features Indicators NFHS-4 2015–16 Introduced district-level estimates; tablet-based digital interviewing 114 NFHS-5 2019–21 Added disability, abortion, menstrual hygiene; extended BP/blood sugar tests to all adults 15+ 131 NFHS-6 2023–24 Added DBTs, digital literacy, Hepatitis-B/C testing; restored HIV biological testing 101 (43 dropped, 13 added) NFHS-6 Key Findings Gains Mothers receiving at least 4 antenatal check-ups: up ~7 percentage points. Spousal violence: Declined from 29.3% (NFHS-5) to 22.3%. Stunting in children under 5: Fell by over 6 percentage points. Health insurance coverage: Largest rise in West Bengal (33.7% → 88.2%); women's Internet use largest jump in Andhra Pradesh (21% → 63.6%). Declines Exclusive breastfeeding (infants under 6 months): Down ~8 percentage points; steepest fall in Haryana (69.5% → 41.2%). Modern contraceptive use: Down from 56.4% to 52.7%. Overweight/obesity among women increased in every state. Major Indicators Dropped — The Controversy Indicator Last Value (NFHS-5) Programme Linked To Anaemia prevalence Children: 67.1%; Women 15–49: 57% Anaemia Mukt Bharat (2018) Infant Mortality Rate District-level, socio-economic data available NHM child survival Sex ratio at birth 929 females/1,000 males Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Sanitation coverage 70% households Swachh Bharat Mission Clean cooking fuel use 58.6% households PM Ujjwala Yojana Cancer screening Introduced only in NFHS-5 National Cancer Control Why Was Anaemia Dropped? — Official vs Critical View Official position: The capillary (finger-prick) method used earlier overstated anaemia prevalence; anaemia will now be tracked via the Diet and Biomarkers Survey in India (launched December 2022 at ICMR-National Institute of Nutrition, Hyderabad) using venous blood sampling. Critical view: NFHS-5 showed worsening anaemia across 28 States/UTs despite the Anaemia Mukt Bharat campaign (2018); IIPS director Prof. K.S. James was reportedly suspended in July 2023 after refusing to revise unflattering data, and resigned in August 2023. The Lancet (April 2024 cover) asked: "Why is the Government so afraid of showing the real state of health?" Concerns Data accountability gap: No single survey now provides district-level, socio-economically disaggregated data on IMR, U5MR, anaemia, or sanitation — SRS provides national/state mortality data but lacks this granularity. Programme accountability void: Key flagship scheme outcome indicators (Ujjwala, Swachh Bharat, Anaemia Mukt Bharat) are absent from India's most credible health survey. Statistical independence: The IIPS director controversy raises serious questions about institutional independence of India's health data architecture. SDG reporting gap: India's SDG reporting to the UN on child health, nutrition, and sanitation is weakened by these omissions. Way Forward Restore dropped indicators in the full NFHS-6 national report (not just the preliminary fact sheet). Strengthen IIPS autonomy — insulate the institute from political pressure on data methodology and publication. Accelerate release of Diet and Biomarkers Survey results to avoid any anaemia tracking continuity gap. Parliamentary Standing Committee on Health should examine the rationale for indicator removal. Conclusion NFHS-6 is a tale of two surveys — one that celebrates India's health achievements and another that has silenced the inconvenient metrics of struggling programmes. A democracy's health accountability depends on honest data. Removing indicators that reflect poorly on flagship schemes does not improve health outcomes; it only removes the mirror. Prelims Pointers NFHS: National Family Health Survey; commissioned by MoHFW; conducted by IIPS (International Institute for Population Sciences), Mumbai. NFHS-6 (2023–24): 101 indicators — down from 131 in NFHS-5; 43 dropped, 13 added; covers 6.8 lakh households. Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB): Launched 2018 under the National Health Mission (NHM); targets 3 percentage point annual reduction in anaemia — its outcome data is now absent from NFHS-6. Diet and Biomarkers Survey: Launched December 2022 at ICMR-NIN (National Institute of Nutrition), Hyderabad; uses venous blood sampling (more accurate than finger-prick) for anaemia measurement. SRS (Sample Registration System): Managed by Office of the Registrar General of India (ORGI); provides national and state-level birth/death rates, IMR, MMR — but does NOT provide district-level or socio-economically disaggregated data. SDGs: 17 Sustainable Development Goals (UN, 2015); NFHS directly tracked SDG 2 (anaemia), SDG 3 (child mortality), SDG 6 (sanitation) — all partially compromised by NFHS-6 omissions. Practice Mains Question "The credibility of a nation's health data is as important as the quality of its health infrastructure. Critically examine the controversy surrounding the removal of key indicators from NFHS-6 and its implications for India's public health accountability and governance." GS Paper 2  |  250 words  |  15 marks Prelims Practice MCQ Which of the following statements about the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is/are correct? 1. NFHS is conducted by IIPS under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. 2. NFHS-6 (2023–24) tracks more health indicators than NFHS-5 (2019–21). 3. The Sample Registration System (SRS) can substitute NFHS for district-level, socio-economically disaggregated child mortality data. (a)1 only (b)1 and 2 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: (a) Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect — NFHS-6 has 101 indicators, down from 131 in NFHS-5 (net reduction of 30). Statement 3 is incorrect — SRS provides national and state-level estimates only; it lacks district-level and socio-economic disaggregation, which is NFHS's unique contribution to India's health data architecture. Article 06 SIPRI Yearbook 2026 — India's Nuclear Arsenal and Military Expenditure GS Paper 2 — International Relations | Security Issues | India & Its Neighbourhood | Nuclear Doctrine Why in News The Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) Yearbook 2026, released on June 8, 2026, estimated India's nuclear arsenal has grown to approximately 190 warheads by early 2026 (up from ~180 in 2025). The report described Operation Sindoor (May 2025) as an "unusually severe military crisis" and noted the first-ever integration of cyber operations into an active India-Pakistan military conflict. Key Highlights India's Nuclear Arsenal Estimated warheads (early 2026): ~190 (up from ~180 in 2025). Modernisation increasingly focused on long-range weapons capable of reaching targets throughout China, while also addressing Pakistan-specific deterrence. India and Israel primarily produce plutonium (not highly enriched uranium) for their nuclear weapons programmes. Global Nuclear Picture Metric Figure (Start of 2026) Total global nuclear warheads ~12,187 In military stockpiles (potentially usable) ~9,745 Deployed (on missiles/aircraft, ready for use) ~4,012 Nine nuclear-armed states US, Russia, UK, France, China, India, Pakistan, North Korea, Israel SIPRI's key finding: All nine nuclear-armed states are "increasingly relying on nuclear weapons as instruments of national power" — reversing decades of disarmament efforts. Operation Sindoor — SIPRI Assessment Described as an "unusually severe military crisis" between India and Pakistan. India struck Pakistani air and missile bases likely to have nuclear-related roles. Both countries took measures to prevent further escalation despite heightened tensions. First-ever integration of cyber operations into active India-Pakistan military conflict — a new and dangerous escalation dimension. India's Military Expenditure and Arms Trade 2025 military expenditure: $92.1 billion — increase of 8.9%; India ranked 5th globally (behind US, China, Russia, Germany). India was the world's second-largest importer of major arms during 2021–25, accounting for 8.2% of global arms imports. Five largest importers (2021–25): Ukraine, India, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Pakistan — collectively ~35% of global imports. India's Nuclear Doctrine — Key Features No-First-Use (NFU): India will not be the first to use nuclear weapons. Massive retaliation: Any nuclear attack — including a tactical one — will be met with a massive nuclear counter-strike (NOT proportional/limited response). Credible minimum deterrence: India does not seek numerical parity; maintains only what is sufficient to deter. Civilian command: Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) — Political Council chaired by the Prime Minister; Executive Council chaired by the National Security Advisor (NSA). Concerns Escalation risk: Operation Sindoor showed conventional conflict near nuclear thresholds is increasingly feasible — India-Pakistan crisis management mechanisms remain critically weak. Cyber-nuclear nexus: First documented cyber integration into a nuclear-risk conflict — no clear international norms govern this escalation pathway. Two-front deterrence gap: India's shift toward China-focused longer-range systems reflects recognition that Pakistan-centric deterrence alone is insufficient. Import dependence: India remains the world's second-largest arms importer despite Atmanirbhar Bharat in defence. Way Forward Revive the 1988 Agreement on Non-Attack on Nuclear Installations and restore India-Pakistan direct hotline communications. Push for bilateral/multilateral norms on non-use of cyberattacks against nuclear command-and-control infrastructure. Accelerate Atmanirbhar Bharat in defence to reduce strategic import dependence. Conclusion SIPRI Yearbook 2026 presents a deeply concerning picture of a world where nuclear weapons are increasingly central to power politics. For India, the dual challenge is managing a two-front nuclear deterrence environment with China and Pakistan while avoiding the escalatory dynamics that Operation Sindoor's near-miss revealed. Strategic restraint backed by credible capability remains India's most prudent course. Prelims Pointers SIPRI: Stockholm International Peace Research Institute; Swedish independent research institute; publishes the SIPRI Yearbook annually on armaments, disarmament, and international security. India's warheads (2026): ~190; up from ~180 in 2025. 9 nuclear-armed states: US, Russia, UK, France, China, India, Pakistan, North Korea, Israel. India, Pakistan, and Israel are the three states outside the NPT (Non-Proliferation Treaty). Global stockpile (2026): ~12,187 total; ~9,745 in military stockpiles; ~4,012 deployed on missiles/aircraft. India's Nuclear Doctrine: No-First-Use (NFU) + Credible Minimum Deterrence + Massive Retaliation — even a tactical nuclear attack triggers a massive response; India does NOT subscribe to proportional or limited nuclear response. NCA: Political Council chaired by PM; Executive Council chaired by NSA. India's military expenditure (2025): $92.1 billion — 5th largest globally (US, China, Russia, Germany, India). India — 2nd largest arms importer (2021–25): 8.2% of global imports; Ukraine was the largest. 1988 Agreement on Non-Attack on Nuclear Installations: India-Pakistan CBM; both exchange lists of nuclear sites annually on January 1. Operation Sindoor (May 2025): India's military response to Pahalgam terror attack; SIPRI calls it "unusually severe military crisis." Practice Mains Question "SIPRI Yearbook 2026's findings on India's nuclear modernisation and Operation Sindoor reflect a South Asian security environment increasingly prone to escalation. Critically examine India's nuclear doctrine in the context of its evolving two-front deterrence challenge." GS Paper 2  |  250 words  |  15 marks Prelims Practice MCQ Which of the following statements about India's nuclear doctrine is NOT correct? (a)India follows a No-First-Use (NFU) policy and will not use nuclear weapons first (b)India's nuclear assets are under civilian command through the Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) (c)India will respond proportionately — with a tactical nuclear strike — if attacked with a tactical nuclear weapon (d)India's nuclear posture is based on credible minimum deterrence Correct Answer: (c) Options (a), (b), and (d) correctly describe India's doctrine. Option (c) is incorrect — India's doctrine mandates massive retaliation regardless of the scale of the initial nuclear attack. India does not subscribe to limited/proportional nuclear response or tactical nuclear war-fighting. Even a small tactical nuclear strike would trigger a massive counter-strike — a high-frequency UPSC trap question. Article 07 IMI-Resistant Mustard Hybrids — Solving Orobanche, Creating New Risks GS Paper 3 — Agriculture | Food Security | Science & Technology | Biotechnology Why in News From the Rabi 2026–27 season, Indian farmers are set to begin wide-scale cultivation of imidazolinone (IMI)-resistant mustard hybrids, commercially introduced through the Clearfield® Production System by BASF India in partnership with Corteva Agriscience India (launched February 2026, Jaipur). These non-GMO hybrids address the Orobanche parasitic weed problem. However, geneticist Prof. Deepak Pental (University of Delhi) has cautioned in Current Science against over-reliance on a single herbicide mode of action. The Problem: Orobanche (Broomrape) Scientific names: Orobanche aegyptiaca (also reclassified as Phelipanche). Type: Obligate root holoparasite — attaches to mustard roots underground via haustoria; siphons water, nutrients, and carbon from the host plant. Why manual weeding fails: The parasite is underground and most damaging before it becomes visible above ground. Severity: Yields in affected Haryana fields fell from 9–12 quintals/acre to ~6 quintals/acre; up to 50% yield loss in severe cases. Seed persistence: Each plant produces thousands of seeds viable in soil for up to 20 years. Affected regions: Primarily Rajasthan, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh. Why Mustard Matters — The Edible Oil Context India imported ~16 million tonnes of edible oils in 2024–25 at approximately ₹1.6 lakh crore — the second-largest import bill after crude oil. Mustard is India's most vital domestically produced oilseed; Orobanche suppression directly contributes to this import vulnerability. The Solution: IMI-Resistant Hybrids Mechanism: Mutation Breeding (Non-GMO) Developed through mutation breeding — selecting naturally occurring beneficial genetic mutations — not transgenic/GM technology. Key enzyme: ALS (acetolactate synthase) — essential for plant amino acid synthesis and growth. Normal mustard is killed by IMI herbicides because IMI inhibits ALS. In the new hybrids, a single DNA mutation renders the ALS enzyme resistant — allowing IMI to be sprayed over the entire field, killing Orobanche while the crop is unharmed. The herbicide moves through the soil and plant into the parasite. Commercial Product Hybrid: Pioneer-45S42CL (Corteva); herbicide: Kifix® (BASF — imazapyr + imazapic); single spray after 25 days of sowing. The Risk: Prof. Pental's Warning Year-after-year IMI use creates strong directional selection pressure — gradually favouring Orobanche plants with natural resistance mutations. This leads to: (1) emergence of resistant weed populations; (2) erosion of herbicide efficacy; (3) strategic failure of the entire production system. "A single herbicide mode of action cannot be the foundation of a sustainable weed management strategy in any agriculture." — Prof. Pental. Way Forward — Integrated Weed Management Crop rotation with non-host crops to starve Orobanche seeds in soil. Herbicide rotation — alternate IMI with other modes of action to prevent resistance buildup. Manual weeding as backup to remove herbicide-tolerant survivors. GM mustard options: Glyphosate-resistant GM mustard lines developed by researchers — offering multiple chemical options; pending regulatory approval. Conclusion IMI-resistant mustard hybrids are a significant step forward in India's edible oil self-sufficiency mission. But they are not a silver bullet — they must be embedded in a diverse, evolutionarily-informed integrated weed management strategy. The challenge is making innovation durable, not just deployable. Prelims Pointers Orobanche (Broomrape): Obligate root parasite (Orobanche aegyptiaca / Phelipanche); attaches to mustard roots via haustoria; seeds viable in soil for up to 20 years; cannot be reached by manual weeding. Haustoria: Specialised root-like structures used by parasitic plants to penetrate host roots and extract water and nutrients — the key mechanism of Orobanche damage. IMI Herbicides (Imidazolinones): Inhibit the ALS (acetolactate synthase) enzyme; normally lethal to mustard; IMI-resistant hybrids have a mutated ALS unaffected by the herbicide. ALS (Acetolactate Synthase): Enzyme essential for plant amino acid synthesis and growth; target of both IMI and sulfonylurea herbicides. Mutation Breeding vs GM: Mutation breeding selects natural genetic mutations — non-transgenic, non-GMO. GM inserts foreign DNA — transgenic. IMI-resistant mustard is non-GMO. Clearfield® System: Non-GMO herbicide-tolerant crop system by BASF; deployed with Corteva seeds in India; uses Kifix® herbicide (imazapyr + imazapic). Directional Selection: Evolutionary pressure where consistent use of one herbicide selects for resistant weed individuals — leads to resistant populations over time. Edible oil imports (2024–25): ~16 million tonnes; ~₹1.6 lakh crore — India's second-largest import bill after crude oil. Prof. Deepak Pental: Senior geneticist, University of Delhi; also worked on GM mustard (DMH-11) development — his caution on IMI single-mode dependence is scientifically significant. Practice Mains Question "IMI-resistant mustard hybrids offer a technological solution to one of India's most persistent agricultural challenges, but also introduce new evolutionary risks. Critically evaluate this technology in the context of India's edible oil security and sustainable weed management." GS Paper 3  |  250 words  |  15 marks Prelims Practice MCQ Which of the following best explains why IMI-resistant mustard hybrids can selectively kill Orobanche without harming the crop? (a)The herbicide is applied only to the soil surface around the parasite and does not reach the mustard plant (b)The mustard hybrid produces a natural toxin that kills Orobanche at the root junction (c)A mutation in the mustard hybrid's ALS enzyme makes it resistant to IMI herbicides; the herbicide moves through the plant into the parasite, killing only the parasite (d)The hybrid is genetically modified to express Bt toxin that specifically targets Orobanche Correct Answer: (c) A single DNA mutation in the mustard's ALS enzyme renders the plant resistant to IMI herbicides. When the herbicide is sprayed, it is absorbed by the mustard and moves through the root system into the attached Orobanche — killing the parasite that manual weeding cannot reach. Option (d) is incorrect — these are non-GMO mutation-bred hybrids, not Bt transgenic crops. Article 08 Quantum Randomness Amplification — A Breakthrough in Digital Security GS Paper 3 — Science & Technology | Cybersecurity | Emerging Technologies Why in News Researchers at ETH Zürich published a landmark study in Nature demonstrating randomness amplification for the first time — using quantum entanglement and a Bell test to convert weakly random (biased) data into certified perfectly random numbers. This addresses the foundational weakness of modern digital security: even the best random number generators retain subtle, predictable biases. Why Randomness Matters in Digital Security All modern cryptographic systems use random numbers to generate encryption keys. Even a small bias allows sophisticated attackers to dramatically reduce the guesses needed to crack a key. Even quantum-mechanical random number generators are not entirely immune to systematic bias from heat, noise, and hardware imperfections. The Santha-Vazirani Limit (1986) Computer scientists Miklós Santha and Umesh Vazirani proved in 1986 that classical computers cannot eliminate bias from a weakly random source — no amount of post-processing can remove predictability if the input has even a small bias. This was the theoretical barrier quantum physics needed to break. The ETH Zürich Breakthrough The Bell Test Approach A Bell test proves quantum entanglement — two particles so linked that measuring one instantly determines the other, regardless of distance. Measuring an entangled particle creates new information that did not exist before the measurement — the universe didn't "know" the answer until the moment of measurement; outcomes are fundamentally unpredictable. The Experiment Two particles entangled and placed 30 metres apart. Bell violation score: 2.271 — above the classical limit of 2.0; proves quantum physics governs the randomness. Biased bits and Bell test outcomes combined using a two-source extractor — designed so an attacker with any advantage predicting either string has zero advantage predicting the combined output. Scale: 5.3 billion biased bits + 2.6 billion Bell test bits → 1.3 billion trials → 45 million certified perfectly random bits. Failure probability: 1 in a trillion. Protocol is device-independent — quality guaranteed without trusting the hardware manufacturer. Significance and Limitations Feature ETH Zürich Protocol Commercial Quantum RNG Randomness quality Certified perfect (device-independent) High quality but not certified Output rate ~1,400 bits/second ~1 billion bits/second Practical readiness Research grade; not deployable yet Deployed commercially Important caveat: Better randomness will NOT protect against future quantum computer attacks on current encryption. That requires post-quantum cryptography — migration to quantum-resistant algorithms like CRYSTALS-Kyber and CRYSTALS-Dilithium (standardised by NIST, USA in 2024). India's Relevance India's National Quantum Mission (NQM) — launched 2023, ₹6,003 crore over 8 years — makes quantum cryptography directly relevant to India's digital security agenda. Dr. Urbasi Sinha (Raman Research Institute, Bengaluru) leads India's Quantum Information and Computing lab and commented on the ETH Zürich study — underscoring Indian research linkages. Conclusion The ETH Zürich breakthrough proves that the Santha-Vazirani limit — a 40-year theoretical ceiling — can be broken by quantum physics. While not yet practical for deployment, it establishes a new gold standard for cryptographic randomness and opens the door to device-independent security guarantees that could transform digital infrastructure in coming decades. Prelims Pointers Quantum Entanglement: Two particles correlated such that measuring one instantly determines the state of the other, regardless of distance — purely quantum; Einstein called it "spooky action at a distance." Bell Test: Physics experiment to prove quantum entanglement; a Bell violation score above 2 proves quantum (not classical) physics governs the system — the classical physics limit is exactly 2. Santha-Vazirani Limit (1986): Classical computers cannot amplify weak randomness — even small biases cannot be eliminated by classical post-processing alone. ETH Zürich demonstrated quantum physics can overcome this. Randomness Amplification: Converting a weakly random (biased) source into certified, perfectly random bits — now demonstrated for the first time using quantum physics. Device-Independent Security: Randomness quality provable from observable statistics (the Bell score) alone, without trusting the hardware — the gold standard for cryptographic security. Post-Quantum Cryptography: Encryption algorithms resistant to quantum computer attacks; standardised by NIST (USA) in 2024; examples: CRYSTALS-Kyber (key encapsulation), CRYSTALS-Dilithium (digital signatures). Better randomness does NOT solve the quantum computing threat. National Quantum Mission (India, 2023): ₹6,003 crore over 8 years; targets quantum computers (50–1,000 qubit range), QKD, quantum sensing, and quantum communication infrastructure. NIST Randomness Beacon: US National Institute of Standards and Technology broadcasts 512 certified random bits every 60 seconds — used for lotteries, jury selection, and voting machine audits. Practice Mains Question "Quantum physics is emerging as the foundation for the next generation of cryptographic security. Examine the significance of the randomness amplification breakthrough and its implications for India's National Quantum Mission and digital security infrastructure." GS Paper 3  |  150 words  |  10 marks Prelims Practice MCQ Assertion (A): The ETH Zürich randomness amplification experiment demonstrates that perfectly random numbers can be generated from biased inputs using quantum entanglement. Reason (R): In quantum mechanics, measuring an entangled particle creates new information that did not exist before the measurement, making the outcome fundamentally unpredictable. Which of the following is correct? (a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (b)Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c)A is true, but R is false (d)A is false, but R is true Correct Answer: (a) Both statements are true and R correctly explains A. The ETH Zürich team exploited the quantum property that measuring an entangled particle generates fundamentally unpredictable new information — not "decided" in advance. This quantum randomness was combined with biased classical bits via a two-source extractor to produce certified perfect randomness. R is the precise physical mechanism underpinning A. Article 09 Philippines 7.8 Magnitude Earthquake — Places in the News GS Paper 2 — International Relations | Places in News | GS Paper 3 — Disaster Management General Santos City, Mindanao, Philippines — collapsed structures in the aftermath of the 7.8-magnitude earthquake of June 8, 2026. Why in News A powerful 7.8-magnitude earthquake struck approximately 20 km off the coast of Sarangani province in southern Mindanao, Philippines, on June 8, 2026, at 7:37 AM local time. The quake — the strongest to hit the Philippines in 2026 — killed at least 35 people and injured over 200. It triggered tsunami warnings across the Philippines, Indonesia, Palau, Taiwan, Papua New Guinea, and southern Japan. Waves up to 1 metre (3 feet) hit coastal areas; all warnings cancelled after six+ hours. Key Facts — The Event Magnitude: 7.8 (initially 7.0 by PHIVOLCS; rapidly upgraded). Epicentre: ~20 km off Sarangani province; depth ~33 km. Most affected: General Santos City — Notre Dame of Dadiangas University and other buildings collapsed; casualties in South Cotabato and Davao Occidental. Landslide: Deadly landslide in Sarangani province killed 13 villagers. Possible seismic source: Cotabato Trench (under PHIVOLCS investigation). Response: President Ferdinand Marcos Jr. ordered immediate disaster response; NDRRMC and military mobilised. Key Geographical and Geological Context — Places Mapped Place Significance Sarangani Province Southernmost province of Mindanao; epicentre; site of deadly landslide General Santos City Major port city; ~700,000 people; regional hub for tuna export industry; most affected urban area Mindanao Second most populous Philippine island (after Luzon); southern Philippines Cotabato Trench Deep ocean trench off Mindanao; probable seismic source of the earthquake Sulawesi, Indonesia Tremors felt 420 km away in Manado; tsunami warning issued Sabah, Malaysia Malaysian state on Borneo island; tsunami warning issued and cancelled Why the Philippines is Earthquake-Prone The Philippines lies on the Pacific Ring of Fire — ~40,000 km arc around the Pacific Ocean; accounts for ~90% of the world's earthquakes and ~75% of its volcanoes. Sits at the convergence of the Philippine Plate, Eurasian Plate, and Pacific Plate. The country has 7,641 islands; largest island: Luzon; second largest: Mindanao. India's Relevance India's Andaman & Nicobar Islands also lie on the Ring of Fire and face similar earthquake-tsunami compound risks. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC) — operated by INCOIS (Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services) under MoES, Hyderabad — issued relevant Indian Ocean alerts. India-Philippines relations fall under India's Act East Policy; both are Indo-Pacific partners. Concerns Urban vulnerability: Significant building collapses in General Santos City raise questions about building code enforcement in seismically active zones. Communication blackout: Power outages cut off affected communities from disaster coordination channels immediately — a universal last-mile challenge. School timing: The quake struck on the first day of classes — significantly increasing civilian exposure, especially children. Conclusion The Philippines 2026 earthquake underscores that seismic risk in Ring of Fire nations is not a question of if but when. The compound disaster — earthquake, landslide, and tsunami threat — in a densely populated urban centre highlights the urgency of integrating urban planning, building codes, and multi-hazard early warning systems in vulnerable coastal nations. Prelims Pointers Philippines: Archipelago of ~7,641 islands; capital Manila (on Luzon); largest island: Luzon; second largest: Mindanao. Ring of Fire: ~40,000 km arc around the Pacific Ocean; accounts for ~90% of world's earthquakes and ~75% of world's volcanoes. PHIVOLCS: Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology; under DOST (Department of Science and Technology), Philippines — NOT the Department of Environment and Natural Resources. NDRRMC: National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council — Philippines' apex disaster management body. Cotabato Trench: Deep ocean trench off southern Philippines (Mindanao); a major seismogenic zone; probable source of the June 8 earthquake. General Santos City: Southern Philippine port city; ~700,000 people; regional hub for the tuna export industry. INCOIS: Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services, Hyderabad; under MoES; operates India's ITEWC (Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre). Pacific Tsunami Warning Centre (PTWC): Based in Hawaii, USA; issues regional Pacific tsunami warnings. India's ITEWC covers the Indian Ocean. India's Seismic Zones: India has 5 seismic zones (I to V); Zone V = highest risk; includes Andaman & Nicobar, northeastern India, Himalayan regions, and parts of Gujarat. Practice Mains Question "Coastal megacities in seismically active regions face compounded risks from earthquakes, tsunamis, and infrastructure failures. Using the Philippines 2026 earthquake as a case study, discuss the challenges of urban disaster preparedness in developing countries." GS Paper 3  |  150 words  |  10 marks Prelims Practice MCQ Which of the following statements about the Pacific Ring of Fire is NOT correct? (a)It is an arc of seismic and volcanic activity approximately 40,000 km long around the Pacific Ocean (b)It accounts for approximately 90% of the world's earthquakes (c)India's mainland falls entirely within the Ring of Fire, making it one of the highest seismic-risk countries globally (d)The Philippines, Japan, Indonesia, and Chile are among the countries lying on the Ring of Fire Correct Answer: (c) Option (c) is incorrect — India's mainland does NOT lie on the Ring of Fire. India's seismicity arises from the collision of the Indo-Australian Plate with the Eurasian Plate along the Himalayan boundary. Only India's Andaman & Nicobar Islands lie on the Ring of Fire. Options (a), (b), and (d) are factually correct.